Why is it that some words with pronoun at the end have ishbaa’ but others don’t even though both have the pronoun?

Assalamu alaikum,
I have a question concerning اشباع: In one of your videos, you have explained that Ishba’ occurs only with words that end with the pronoun ه. But in that video in minute 1:51, in one ayah the word فيه occurs in both Ayahs, why is it that one has ishbaa’ but the other doesn’t even though both have the pronoun? Or maybe I’m mistaken, please clarify. Thank you for your efforts, may Allah reward you
Assalamu alaykum wa rahmatu Allahi taala wa barakatuh

The Answer

Wa alikom asslam wa rahmatu Allahi taala wa barakatuh,
Alhamdulilah

In the mushaf, ishbaa’ is indicated with symbols, so you apply it whenever you see its symbols. However, there is of course a reason behind it. When the pronoun ه comes at the end of words like فيه for example, and it falls between two letters that have vowels (fatha, dhammah, kasra) then ishbaa will happen, but if that is not the case, then there will be no ishbaa’.
Compare this aya from suah al-balad: أَيَحْسَبُ أَن لَّن يَقْدِرَ عَلَيْهِ أَحَدٌ

Where the word عليه has no ishbaa’ at the end of it, since the yaa’ has sukoon.

Now compare that with the example I gave in the video to see the difference.
Hope this clears things up

Asslamo alikom